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Was the trigger point for John Roberts’ appointment based upon Smith v Doe?

One of the most influential appointments in the history of the United states has turned out to be John Roberts, Chief Justice and Price Club Manager of the United States Supreme Court. I am in the process of researching how judicial appointments were made in the United States, including both the historical records as well as political gamesmanship in making those selections. Full Editorial on

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I love how one if the comments states we would allow our licenses to be taking away because of a new law being passed that revoked licenses for a dui you had five or ten years ago? After all there is a rational basis for such a regulatory scheme. Dui drivers have a much higher recidivism rate and are much more frequent and dangerous then the rso.

I know that this is an ignorant question, but since Roberts was involved in the litigation, as a lawyer, as to the constitutionality of this law, as a judge, would he not have to recuse himself due to bias?

No need to recuse the ‘Umpire’, as he described himself during his confirmation hearings. He said he calls ’em as he sees ’em, with respect to the Constitution. Before Roberts now serving on the Supreme Court, he did pro bono work for gay rights advocates. But Roberts was part of the dissent on the ruling allowing gay marriage, saying the ruling to allow gay marriage has nothing to do with the Constitution. Not that his dissent on gay marriage was very enlightening, but maybe Roberts really is the Umpire, who is above being confined to the spirit of positions he has had in the past, positions on similar questions with different circumstances now, and the empirical and unquestionable knowledge we have today on low re-offense rates of registrants.

Would love your thoughts, please comment.x